Free Essay. Globalization: Empires of the Atlantic World: Britain and Spain in America

1. Did New England towns resemble medieval European cities? Answer yes or no, discuss 3 arguments, and provide examples.

Is your time best spent reading someone else’s essay? Get a 100% original essay FROM A CERTIFIED WRITER!

Order now

The New England towns did resemble the medieval European cities but not to a large extent. They resembled very unique aspects as discussed below but did not leave out essential ones as will be discussed below:

Firstly the New England towns were built based on the local topography. The towns consisted of large tracts of land that were accompanied by nearby villages. To accommodate the villages, the vast expanses of land had to be adjusted during the architectural design of the towns. The plan was formed through building a church that formed the basis of European towns. The churches formed the venues of assembly, which became conditional. Same as the Spanish towns, the New England towns allocated house lots to families together with parcels of land (Elliott, 2007). The packages of minerals were given to families concerning how they were needed. The allocated pieces of land were given to families outside the residential areas. The allocation of land was conditional. The conditional method was adapted to improve and put use to the vast tracts of land that were found within the cities. It was a method adopted in Spain.

Secondly, the New England towns consisted of architectural designs the same as those of the medieval European City. During the construction of the New England towns, the renaissance architectural period was the main thing going on both in Europe and America. The architects during that time used the same method to construct, making it similar.

In terms of the leadership structure within the towns, they adapted the ones for medieval times, where local governments led the cities. It is the leadership through the local government that led Roger Williams to oppose the structure claiming the towns were falling prey to the designs of Boston speculators. From the above discussion, it is clear that the old England towns adapted the structures of medieval times.

2. Did the age of colonization allow for the formation of a New World oligarchy in Spanish and English colonies? Answer yes or no, and identify and explain 3 arguments in support of your answer.

The age of colonization allowed for the formation of a new world aristocracy in Spanish and English colonies (Elliott, 2007). The two countries conducted a lot in common, which conquer the assumption that the two teams though separated in time and space, formed characteristics that informed the formation of the new world oligarchy.

Firstly, the two colonies became the launchers of conquest and commerce, which was later used by a lot of settlements in other parts of the world. When colonies resisted straight forward classifications, the colonies focused on conquering the land and lesser determination on the people. The two provinces focused on commercial opportunities and the exclusion of everything else.

Additionally, the promotional literature used by the Spaniards indicated that the English had some attitudes within the colonizing venture that informed relevant Spanish and other world colonies precedents.

Lastly, the pursuance policy of aggressive expansion into other non-colony territory was introduced by the British. The administration has continued to be implemented in later year's colony, which provides proof that the oligarch set by Spain and British was a significant contribution to the age of colonization.

3. Were 'Old World diseases' the most effective allies that Europeans had in conquering the Americas? Identify and discuss 2 arguments.

America was a different territory. Of all the methods that the Europeans used to gain supremacy, the old-world disease was the most effective. The vital tool was brought to the new estimates of the total population by the invaders (Elliott, 2007)s.

The population of America dropped by an estimate of about 90 percent caused by the contact by the European settlers. Such a degree of loss justifies the assumption that the arrival of Europeans brought a catastrophe that resulted in the subsequent submission by the Americans.

Additionally, The Americans were fearful of the old world disease, which became a discussion for the Spanish to exploit this weakness. The old world disease led to the subsequent maltreatment and exploitation of the Americans by the Spanish. From the mentioned two discussions, it is clear that the old world disease was the most effective of all the allies that the Europeans used to conquer America.

4. What was the fundamental distinction between a conquistador and a planter in the 16th century? Identify and discuss 3 arguments, and provide examples by drawing upon the expeditions of Hernan Cortes and Christopher Newport.

The first fundamental distinction between planters and conquistador is that planters were composed of men who had contributed to the composition of the New Port's expedition. They had taken part in building the colony. Only sixteen of the English men in America were considered planters. On the other hand, conquistadors were the first conquerors of the land. They did not take part in building the nation but inherited it for various purposes on behalf of the Spanish government.

The second argument is that planters were composed of gentlemen from the average class of citizens. The Englishman New Port and his expedition were only supported by a tailor, a London goldsmith, and others of the same caliber. The conquistador, on the other hand, was composed of people who were mostly from the elite class. The Coates expedition was composed of people from the elite class. Most of them were professional soldiers and others who were considered the level of Hildago.

Lastly, the plantations inherited by the planters were people synonymous with a colony. It meant that 'plantations' was a word used by the English to express their new settlement in the American territory. However, conquistador was used by the Spanish, but they did not in any way represent the Spanish government. They were on their own and were not expected to pay rent like their planter counterparts.

The above discussion then presents three ways in which a conquistador and a planter were mostly differentiated.

5. Did the institution of encomienda play a role in the Spanish age of colonization? Identify and explain three arguments, and provide examples.

The encomienda system played a massive role in the Spanish age of colonization. The native laborers who would pay tribute to the Spanish encomendero were given protection. By being granted protection, most natives were forced into the system.

Secondly, the encomienda system became an instrument for satisfying the demands of the conquerors. Instead of a war breaking out, the teams had found an agreement on how to share spoils regarding the laborers.

Finally, the fully-fledged encomienda system had become a way through which the natives would receive favors from their colonies. As the native laborers performed favors for the colonizers, they expected to be treated well based on the system.

With the above-discussed arguments, the encomienda system significantly played a role in the Spanish age of colonization. An example of encomienda is when Pizarro made 600 encomenderos in charge of Peru. It became an indication that a new world feudal aristocracy was in the making.

6. Was the process of acculturation between American peoples and Europeans a smooth process? Answer yes or no, and identify three arguments in support of your answer.

The process of acculturation between the American and the Europeans was not fair. The process was uneven in the sense that it was pervasive and varied. The perception was assumed to be mutual, but it was under the influence.

Secondly, the coming of the missionaries meant the introduction of force. The indigenous were forced to learn the norms of Christianity without vice versa. This form of acculturation that involved Christianity was designed so that the indigenous would learn the alien Spanish world culture without the Spanish doing the reverse.

Additionally, the master-slave relationship could not give way to the masters to learn the culture of the slave, but rather the slave learns the culture of the master. In the context that the Spanish had become master while the Americans had become masters, the acculturation process became uneven.

7. was religious orthodoxy a fundamental idea behind the Spanish and the English expansion to the Atlantic? Answer yes or no, and provide and discuss 3 historical examples.

Religious orthodoxy was a fundamental idea behind the Spanish and English expansion to the Atlantic Ocean.

Firstly in the year 1630, Roger Williams following a disagreement with his colleagues in the Anglican congregation. He moved to Massachusetts, where he continued with the spread of the gospel. A few friends joined him, thereby creating expansion towards the side of Massachusetts.

Secondly, in the year 1650, the adult male population did not attend churches in Boston. The Orthodox Church invented ways in which they could convince the male population to participate in churches in Boston. It is, therefore, true that the churches in the Atlantic expanded due to the congregation caused by religious orthodoxy.

Lastly, in the year 1662, the church membership was moving downwards because of the relaxation by the church members to meet the high standards set by the early church. The group was made less accessible. The ones that were left out from the purity congregation went ahead and started their church, which led to an expansion.

From the above historical moments, it is clear that the expansion of the Spanish and English across the Atlantic was caused by religious orthodoxy.

8. How did Europe's 'Renaissance curiosity' promote violence against the Indian? Define and describe 3 arguments, and provide examples by drawing upon the history of the conquest of the Mexica, the Anglo-Powhatan wars, and the conquest of Algonquin tribes.

The renaissance curiosity of the Europeans caused war among the Indians. The first proof of the renaissance causing conflict is the anger by the colonial administration who wanted to exploit a swamp suited for farming. At the same time, the Indians refused, thereby creating a conflict among the two groups that led to war.

The second argument of how the renaissance caused war is through the underestimation of the natives. The Europeans assumed the natives would be comfortable to push over, thereby causing conflict as they knew the land better than the colonists. It created a war between the two groups.